2 Which of the following are basic router functions? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a Layer 2 header lookup
B. Broadcast a Layer 2 packet to all the interfaces.
C. IP header examination.
D. Determine the best path to the destination.
Answer: C, D

3 Which ATM adaptation layer is 4A0-100 usually used for transporting IP datagrams?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL 3
D. AAL 5
Answer: D

4 Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps
Answer: B, C, D

5 An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. age out the source address forwarding table entry
Answer: B

6 How does collision detection operate in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. It allows multiple hosts to exchange data simultaneously on the same medium
B. It allows multiple hosts to share the same medium by ensuring that only one host can transmit at a time
C. Detects collisions on a full-duplex link
D. A host will only transmit upon receipt of the token
Answer: B

7 The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. directly interface with the transport layer
B. link integrity testing
C. physical addressing
D. data transmission synchronization
Answer: C, D

8 What is the purpose of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. To ensure the host is able to detect an operational physical link before transmitting.
B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected
C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting
D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry
Answer: C

9 Which statement best describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root bridge/switch?
A. it is the switch on the network with the lowest bridge priority value
B. it is the switch with the highest numeric Media Access Control (MAC) address
C. it is the only switch on the network through which traffic flows
D. it is responsible for removing duplicate frames from the network
Answer: A

10 An Ethernet switch with redundant links has the following entries in its Forwarding Data Base (FDB):
MAC Address　　　　Port
——————- 　——–
00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 　1
00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 　2
It receives on port 2 a frame with the source Media Access Control (MAC) address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11, and destination address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87. What will the switch change in its FDB?
A. it will remove the previous entry for MAC 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 and replace it with a new one mapping this address to port 1
B. it will set a timer on the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 and create a new entry mapping this address to port 2
C. replace the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 with a new one mapping this address to port 2
D. it will create a new entry for MAC address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 mapping this address to port 2 and a new entry for MAC address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 mapping this address to port 1
Answer: C

11 An 12-port Ethernet switch running the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can have how many root ports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: A

12 When a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) 4A0-100 dumps switch receives a topology change Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU), how does it propagate this information through the network?
A. it sends it directly to the root switch
B. it floods it throughout the network
C. it forwards it hop-by-hop through the network
D. it forwards it only through its root port
E. it processes the topology change but does not propagate the BPDU
Answer: B

13 Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customer’s traffic from that of another?
A. the provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customer’s Layer 2 data
B. the PE switch replaces the customer’s VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag
C. the PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customer’s traffic on the carrier’s network
D. the PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customer’s traffic
Answer: C

14 An Ethernet switch is configured to support 4 Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). They are configured as follows:
VLAN　　Port
——- ——
101　　 1
101 　　2
102 　　3
102 　　4
103 　　5
103 　　6
104 　　7
104 　　8
The switch receives a broadcast frame on port 7. Which VLAN members will receive this broadcast frame?
A. none
B. 104
C. 103 and 104
D. 101, 102, 103, and 104
Answer: B

15 Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)
A. console port
B. management Ethernet port
C. access ports
D. network ports
Answer: A, B

16 Changing which part of the 7750SR basic configuration also changes the command prompt?
A. default admin password
B. system name
C. hostname
D. admin user name
Answer: B

17 What is NOT a task of the boot options file?
A. Set the CPM Ethernet port speed.
B. Create an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port
C. Set the console port speed
D. Set the date/time for the system
Answer: D

18 The 201.148.26.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Answer: C

19 What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?
A. a string of 1 in the host portion
B. a string of 0 in the host portion
C. a string of 1 in the network portion
D. a string of 0 in the network portion
Answer: C

20 Which of the following is an example of a valid host address?
A. 172.16.224.255/18
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 224.1.2.1
D. 192.168.24.59/30
Answer: A

21 Given the following:
Network address: 190.160.0.0
Network prefix: /19
What are the network and broadcast addresses for the third subnetwork? (Choose two.)
A. 190.160.64.0
B. 190.160.64.255
C. 190.160.95.255
D. 190.160.96.0
Answer: A, C

22 Why don’t classful routing protocols use the first and last subnetworks?
A. classful routing protocols don’t work with binary numbers
B. classful routing protocols only recognize Class C addresses
C. classful routing protocols do not pass routing information to their neighbors
D. classful routing protocols confuse the base network and the all 0 subnet
Answer: D

23 How does Internet Protocol (IP) addressing create a hierarchical network?
A. all hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers
B. IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides
C. clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses
D. routers, switches and hosts addresses are drawn from unique address classes
Answer: B

24 Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which 4A0-100 study guide of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?
A. 116.14.17.16
B. 116.14.17.31
C. 116.14.17.192
D. 116.14.17.189
Answer: D

25 Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)
A. number of subnetworks currently required
B. type of physical connectivity used by each segment
C. future network growth requirements
D. number of hosts each subnetwork will support
Answer: A, C, D

26 You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the following are true of this network? (Select two)
A. There are 256 usable subnets
B. There are 50 usable subnets
C. There are 254 usable host addresses for each subnet
D. There is one usable subnet
Answer: A, C

27 Given the following:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /28
What is the address range, including the network (all 0) and broadcast (all 1) addresses, for the fourth sub-network?
A. 208.40.224.0 ?208.40.224.255
B. 208.40.4.0 ?208.40.4.255
C. 208.40.224.16 ?208.40.224.31
D. 208.40.224.48 ?208.40.224.63
Answer: D

28 You want to integrate a new network into an existing IP Wide Area Network. The current network configuration is as follows:
Network address: 208.40.224.0
Network prefix: /27
Number of subnetworks: 6
If Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) is used, what prefix is required to support an additional 7-host LAN segment?
A. /24
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29
E. /30
Answer: C

29 Represent the following address in Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) notation:
Network address: 150.220.64.0
Network mask: 255.255.192.0
A. 150.220.64.0/16
B. 150.220.0.0/17
C. 150.220.64.0/18
D. 150.220.0.0/18
Answer: C

30 You have been assigned the CIDR block of 116.65.4.0/22. Which of the following IP addresses could you use as a host? Choose all that apply
A. 116.65.8.32
B. 116.65.7.64
C. 116.65.6.255
D. 116.65.3.255
Answer: B, C

2. Given:
11. public static Iterator reverse(List list) {
12. Collections.reverse(list);
13. return list.iterator();
14. }
15. public static void main(String[] args) {
16. List list = new ArrayList();
17. list.add(“1″); 310-065 list.add(“2″); list.add(“3″);
18. for (Object obj: reverse(list))
19. System.out.print(obj + “, “);
20. }
What is the result?
A. 3, 2, 1,
B. 1, 2, 3,
C. Compilation fails.
D. The code runs with no output.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: C

3. Given:
5. class A {
6. void foo() throws Exception { throw new Exception(); }
7. }
8. class SubB2 extends A {
9. void foo() { System.out.println(“B “); }
10. }
11. class Tester {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. A a = new SubB2();
14. a.foo();
15. }
16. }
What is the result?
A. B
B. B, followed by an Exception.
C. Compilation fails due to an error on line 9.
D. Compilation fails due to an error on line 14.
E. An Exception is thrown with no other output.
Answer: D

4. Given:
1. public class TestString3 {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. // insert code here
5. System.out.println(s);
6. }
7. }
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 3, generate the output 4247? (Choose two.)
A. String s = “123456789″;
s = (s-”123″).replace(1,3,”24″) – “89″;
B. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer(“123456789″);
s.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,”24″).delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer(“123456789″);
s.substring(3,6).delete(1,3).insert(1, “24″);
D. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder(“123456789″);
s.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1, “24″);
E. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder(“123456789″);
s.delete(0,3).delete(1,3).delete(2,5).insert(1, “24″);
Answer: B, E

5. Given:
10. import java.io.*;
11. class Animal {
12. Animal() { System.out.310-065 dumps print(“a”); }
13. }
14. class Dog extends Animal implements Serializable {
15. Dog() { System.out.print(“d”); }
16. }
17. public class Beagle extends Dog { }
If an instance of class Beagle is created, then Serialized, then deSerialized, what is the result?
A. ad
B. ada
C. add
D. adad
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: B

6. Given:
1. public class LineUp {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. double d = 12.345;
4. // insert code here
5. }
6. }
Which code fragment, inserted at line 4, produces the output | 12.345|?
A. System.out.printf(“|%7d| \n”, d);
B. System.out.printf(“|%7f| \n”, d);
C. System.out.printf(“|%3.7d| \n”, d);
D. System.out.printf(“|%3.7f| \n”, d);
E. System.out.printf(“|%7.3d| \n”, d);
F. System.out.printf(“|%7.3f| \n”, d);
Answer: F

7. Which three will compile and run without exception? (Choose three.)
A. private synchronized Object o;
B. void go() {
synchronized() { /* code here */ }
}
C. public synchronized void go() { /* code here */ }
D. private synchronized(this) void go() { /* code here */ }
E. void go() {
synchronized(Object.class) { /* code here */ }
}
F. void go() {
synchronized(Object.class) { /* code here */ }
}
Answer: C, E, F

8. A team of programmers is reviewing a proposed API for a new utility class. After some discussion, they realize that they can reduce the number of methods in the API without losing any functionality.
If they implement the new design, which two OO principles will they be promoting?
A. Looser coupling
B. Tighter coupling
C. Lower cohesion
D. Higher cohesion
E. Weaker encapsulation
F. Stronger encapsulation
Answer: A

9. Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. }
6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted 310-065 study guide independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A, B, E, F

10. Given:
1. import java.util.*;
2. public class Example {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. // insert code here
5. set.add(new Integer(2));
6. set.add(new Integer(1));
7. System.out.println(set);
8. }
9. }
Which code, inserted at line 4, guarantees that this program will output [1, 2]?
A. Set set = new TreeSet();
B. Set set = new HashSet();
C. Set set = new SortedSet();
D. List set = new SortedList();
E. Set set = new LinkedHashSet();
Answer: A

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C

3. Type hinting in PHP allows 200-500 the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD

4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(‘/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March 2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(‘a’, ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(‘a’, ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D

6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B

8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C

9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by 200-500 dumps other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A

10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1 <?php
2 $text = <<
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C

11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD

12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a
non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C

13. Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C

14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:C

15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D

16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be
set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(‘hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B

18. What is the output of the 200-500 study guide following script?
1 val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B

19. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B

20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B

2. High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

3. The term “Full Motion Video” 1K0-002 typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

4. What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

5. Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

6. Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

7. Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

8. E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

9. Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

10. Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

11. Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

12. Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

13. Which audio coding standards 1K0-002 dumps are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

14. Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

15. A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

16. How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

17. Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

18. When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power microphones
Answer: D

20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?
A.It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.
B.It selects among multiple microphones.
C.It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.
D.It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
Answer: D

22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation and echo?
A.Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.
B.Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C.Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.
D.Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of sound
E.Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger after the original sound has stopped.
Answer: AD

23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?
A.Mixer
B.Desk top microphone
C.Loud speaker
D.Sound pressure meter
Answer: B

24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as
A.10 kiloVolt.
B.10 miliVolt.
C.10 gigaVolt.
D.10 Watt.
E.10 Amp.
Answer: B

25. Muting an audio during a 1K0-002 study guide connected videoconference is typically performed when you
A.need to move the microphone.
B.do not want to hear the other parties.
C.need to move conference table.
D.are listening and your room is very noisy.
E.need to hang up the video call.
Answer: ACD

26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?
A.30,000 bits per second
B.40,000 bits per second
C.128,000 bits per second
D.64,000 bits per second
Answer: D

27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over a network connection?
A.greater than 64,000
B.greater than 16,000
C.less than 5,000
D.less than 10,000
Answer: D

28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711 audio algorithm?
A.50Hz to 3.4kHz
B.50Hz to 7kHz
C.300Hz to 3.4kHz
D.300Hz to 7kHz
Answer: C

29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following represents the electrical requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?
A.Power should be turned off, and connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the output of the next device
B.Power should be turned off, and the connector cables should be installed from the output of one device to the input of the next device
C.Power is not important and Cables can be connected without regard to the Connector labels
D.Power is not important and Cables should only be connected to connectors labeled “Audio OUT”
Answer: B

30. Which of the following statements about line-level and mic-level are true?
A.Audio mixers can be connected into a line-level input.
B.Line-level or mic-level can be used for any audio input device.
C.Line-level and mic-level always have different impedance values.
D.Voltage ranges are not the same between line-level and mic-level.
Answer: AD

Q: 2 Which command would collect information about the firmware version running on a Brocade 4100 FC switch?
A. version
B. switchshow
C. show version
D. show switch
Answer: A

Q: 3 What is the read/write pattern for NS0-501 copy-on-write (COW) based snapshots?
A. Read-write-read
B. Write-read-write
C. Read-write-write
D. Write-read
Answer: C

Q: 4 A customer has a 4-node SUN cluster configuration, and each node has 2 dual-ported HBAs. What is the minimum number of igroups that need be created to map a LUN to the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

Q: 5 What could an E_Port represent?
A. A Fibre Channel hub’s connection to the FC switch.
B. A storage controller’s connection to the FC switch.
C. An inter-switch link connection between FC switches.
D. An unused port on the FC switch.
Answer: C

Q: 6 An ACME Corporation user has lost a file on their NetApp SAN. This user can go to the .snapshot directory and retrieve the file. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Q: 7 ACME corporation currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution. The optimal solution would include ________.
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
C. a combination of Fibre Channel and iSCSI.
D. MetroCluster and NAS.
Answer: B

Q: 8 ACME Corporation has a NetApp 2Gb solution, and they only want to upgrade to 4Gb switches. They would ___________.
A. not be able to do this because 4Gb is not supported.
B. add 4Gb HBAs into each controller and 4Gb HBAs to all systems.
C. add 4Gb HBAs into each controller.
D. replace the existing 2Gb switches.
Answer: D

Q: 9 Identify the SAN topology that provides best performance and scalability.
A. cascade
B. core-edge
C. full mesh
D. partial mesh
Answer: B

Q: 10 You connect a host to a Netapp storage system over a FC switch. The host has its boot volumes on the storage systems. What do you have to configure?
A. persistent binding
B. port zoning
C. soft zoning
D. WWN zoning
Answer: A

Q: 11 What would you use to share a data LUN among mulitple servers where each server has simultaneous write access?
A. host-based clustering
B. host-based multipathing
C. host-based volume manager
D. host-based clustered file system
Answer: D

Q: 12 Which THREE are performance tuning parameters available for Fibre Channel HBAs on a host? (Choose three.)
A. HBA queue depth
B. Fibre Channel speed
C. frame size
D. LUN device ID
Answer: A, B, C

Q: 13 ACME Corporation is in the midst of NS0-501 dumps deploying several applications over Fibre Channel. A single NetApp volume will host three 100GB LUNs. The customer will not be using snapshots. Select the minimum volume size required.
A. 100GB
B. 300GB
C. 600GB
D. 660GB
Answer: B

Q: 14 When planning an installation of SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 on Solaris 9, which is true?
A. SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
B. SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can manage a boot disk, root volume groups, and system disks.
C. SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create a striped volume group made up of different LUNs on the same storage controller but in different aggregates.
D. SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can take a snapshot of volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
Answer: D

Q: 15 When running in standby cfmode, if the host can no longer access the LUNs from Controller A after an array controller failover to Controller B, what TWO things should you check? (Choose two.)
A. The cabling between the storage controller and the switch.
B. The zoning on the switch.
C. The LUN masking on the storage controller.
D. The persistent bindings.
Answer: A, B

Q: 16 NFS can access a mapped LUN on a NetApp solution for file read/write access. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Q: 17 On a Windows 2003 with the NetApp DSM MPIO environment with a FAS6000 HA configuration running single_image cfmode, when you pull a cable, the I/O will failover.
When you re-insert the cable, the I/O return to the original port. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 18 SnapDrive for UNIX requires RSH access to the NetApp storage controller. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Q: 19 For FAS 270C, what are the cfmodes supported from Data ONTAP 7.1 onwards?
A. dual_fabric only
B. dual_fabric and single_image
C. dual_fabric and partner
D. dual_fabric and standby
Answer: B

Q: 20 In a single-image cfmode, what is the minimum required version of Data ONTAP?
A. 6X
B. 7.0.5
C. 7.1
D. 7.2
Answer: C

Q: 21 A LUN on the NetApp storage controller can be accessed by either FCP or iSCSI. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 22 ACME Corp. is about to implement a disaster recovery project across two sites. Which THREE issues can impact the performance of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. The distance between sites.
B. The RAID implementation.
C. The link between the remote sites.
D. The I/O characteristics of the application.
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 23 A 100GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. A 100GB of data is written into the LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50GB of data is deleted from the LUN. Determine the current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host.
A. 50% on the host, 100% on the disk array
B. 100% on the host, 50% on the disk array
C. 50% on the host, 50% on the disk array
D. 100% on the host, 100% on the disk array
Answer: A

Q: 24 Which license do you have to install on the NetApp appliance in order to use SnapDrive?
A. NFS license
B. FCP license
C. CIFS license
D. Cluster license
Answer: B

Q: 25 Which host-based tool will enable you NS0-501 study guide to stripe a LUN across multiple NetApp controllers?
A. multipathing software
B. host-based file system
C. host-based volume manager
D. HBA driver
Answer: C

Q: 26 What is the minimum size for a Windows 2003 LUN?
A. 10 MB
B. 20 MB
C. 31.5 MB
D. 50 MB
Answer: C

Q: 27 Which command will show that you have connected the right Brocade switches in the fabric?
A. fabricshow
B. switchshow
C. topologyshow
D. configshow
Answer: A

Q: 28 Determine the appropriate FC topology based on the diagram below.

A. point-to-point
B. switched fabric
C. arbitrated loop
D. ring
Answer: B

Q: 29 In Data ONTAP 7.2, which is mapped to a portset?
A. WWPN
B. LUN
C. igroup
D. volume
Answer: C

Q: 30 A customer has to purchase a CIFS license in order to use SnapDrive in a Windows environment. (True or False?)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Q: 2 The snapvault snap sched -x command can be used to:
A. Schedule full backups
B. Start initial backups
C. Schedule incremental backups
D. Specify platforms that can be backed up
Answer: C

Q: 3 If the local node has its FC HBA connected NS0-163 to switch Bank 1, it owns the disks connected to switch bank ___.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: D

Q: 4 Which three of the following configurations would increase data transfer rates for traditional volume SnapMirror?
A. The destination and source contain disks of the same size.
B. The destination and source contain RAID groups of the same size.
C. The destination and source storage appliances are no further than 30 meters apart.
D. The destination and source contain the same number of RAID groups.
Answer: A, B, D

Q: 5 Which one of the following keywords alone can be used to convert an asynchronous mirror to be synchornous?
A. cksum
B. src_con
C. sync
D. outstanding
Answer: C

Q: 6 When you issue the snapmirror status command, to what does the “Lag” column refer?
A. The amount of time it takes for the baseline transfer to complete.
B. The difference between the current time and the last basic snapshot creation time on the destination for a transfer which completed successfully.
C. The difference between the current time and the last basic snapshot creation time on the source for a transfer which completed successfully.
D. The difference between the most recent snapshot and the last basic snapshot creation time on the source for a transfer which completed successfully.
Answer: C

Q: 7 Which one of the following commands is used to specify the destination appliance(s) that are allowed to replicate (pull) data from the source appliance?
A. options snapmirror.allow
B. snapmirror release
C. snapmirror initialize
D. options snapmirror.access
Answer: D

Q: 8 Which one of the following options will allow a snapmirror storage appliance to mirror from this system?
A. snapmirror.destination
B. options snapmirror.allow
C. snapmirror.access
D. options snapmirror.access host =
Answer: D

Q: 9 In a synchronous SnapMirror configuration, the source storage appliance exhibits high latency due to user traffic and rapid data change from SnapMirror transactions. Which one of the following tuning methods best resolves this performance behavior? Edit the /etc/snapmirror.conf
file on the destination storage appliance and set:
A. outstanding=3s
B. visibility_interval=3s
C. cksum=3s
D. src_con=3
Answer: A

Q: 10 Which one of the following does SnapRestore revert?
A. Snapshot schedules
B. Volume option settings
C. RAID group size
D. File content
Answer: D

Q: 11 Normally, before you split a SyncMirror volume, you ensure that both plexes are _______ and _______.
A. plexes, pools
B. online, operational
C. offline, operational
D. snapshots, contain the most recent snapshot
Answer: B

Q: 12 Node 1 in a clustered pair detects that it has NS0-163 dumps lost connectivity to one of its disk shelves. Node 1 is still up, but it cannot see one of its disk shelves. However, the partner node, Node 2, can see all of Node 1s disk shelves. Which one of the following features will cause Node 2 to monitor this error condition for a period of three minutes (by default), and then forcibly take over Node 1 if the error condition persists?
A. Takeover on panic
B. Negotiated Fail Over
C. Auto enable of giveback
D. cf.quickloop.enable
Answer: B

Q: 13 You have quiesced a volume to stabilize the contents of a destination just prior to a snapshot. What is the next logical command that you would issue after the snapshot is complete?
A. snapmirror resume
B. snapmirror quiesce -q
C. options snapmirror.log enable off
D. snapmirror restart
Answer: A

Q: 14 What command would you enter to restore the /vol/flexvol0/etc/rc file from a snapshot to the /vol/flexvol0/home directory?
A. snap restore -r vol /vol/flexvol0/home/rc /vol/flexvol0/etc/rc
B. snap restore -t /vol/flexvol0/home/rc /vol/flexvol0/etc/rc
C. snap restore -t file -r /vol/flexvol0/home/rc /vol/flexvol0/etc/rc
D. snap restore -s /vol/flexvol0/home/rc /vol/flexvol0/etc/rc
Answer: C

Q: 15 Which command displays the disk ownership for both CPU modules in a FAS270c appliance?
A. disk show -v
B. disk display -r
C. disk own -s
D. vol status -r
Answer: A

Q: 16 Which one of the following commands or procedures would you use to undo a SnapRestore reversion?
A. snap restore -r vol
B. snap revert -s vol
C. snap restore undo vol
D. None of the above. You cannot undo a SnapRestore reversion.
Answer: D

Q: 17 You are trying to do a single file SnapRestore for a file, but you are receiving an error message that the directory structure no longer exists. Which one of the following is the
most likely explanation?
A. You must recreate the directory structure before trying to restore the file.
B. Once the directory structure has been deleted, you cannot restore the file using single file SnapRestore. You must now SnapRestore the volume.
C. Snapshots have been created since the original directory structure was deleted.
D. None of the above
Answer: A

Q: 18 Five minutes ago, you performed a single file SnapRestore on a large NFS file. 40% of your NFS users are now complaining about getting “stale file handles” for the file. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this problem, and the best procedure to correct it?
A. These users are on a different subnet from the others. Start troubleshooting by checking their subnet.
B. After a single file SnapRestore, NFS users have to reboot their systems. Have them reboot their systems.
C. This might be due to an NFS storage appliance and client version mis-match. Check to see that these users have the same version of the NFS client that existed at the time the snapshot was taken.
D. NFS users who try to access a reverted file without first reopening it might get a “stale file handle” error message. Have the users try to reopen the file and see if the problem is resolved.
Answer: D

Q: 19 In a Fabric Attached MetroCluster, a “disaster” is described as a:
A. Failure of the Inter-Switch-Links (ISL)
B. Malfunction of the Fiber Channel adapter on the cluster node
C. Failure of the interconnect cable
D. Prolonged communication disruption
Answer: D

Q: 20 In cluster takeover mode, the shared interface assumes the identity of the ________.
A. local interface only
B. failed partner interface only
C. local and failed partner interfaces
D. None of the above
Answer: C

Q: 21 You have connected all cables and disk shelves in a Fabric Attached MetroCluster. Which one of the following commands would you use to verify that disks are connected and have dual paths?
A. storage show disk -p
B. sysconfig -v
C. vol status -r
D. disk show
Answer: A

Q: 22 Which one of the following statements apply to Advanced Single Instance Storage (ASIS)?
A. Eliminates duplicates files in SnapVault for NetBackup secondary volumes
B. Eliminates duplicates blocks in SnapVault for NetBackup source volumes
C. Eliminates duplicates blocks in SnapVault for NetBackup secondary volumes
D. Eliminates duplicates files in SnapVault for NetBackup source volumes
Answer: C

Q: 23 Which OSSV package would NS0-163 study guide you use to perform an OSSV unattended installation?
A. svunattendossv
B. unattendpackager
C. svconfigpackager
D. None of the above
Answer: C

Q: 24 Which one of the following would you use to change the NDMP password on the Open System SnapVault agent?
A. svpasswd
B. svpassword
C. password
D. password
Answer: B

Q: 25 For a configuration change to be effective when using the OSSV configurator, the OSSV service must be restarted.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 26 Which one of the following statements is not true of SnapLock volumes?
A. There are two types of SnapLock volumes.
B. SnapLock volumes support SnapMirror.
C. SnapLock volumes support per-file retention periods.
D. SnapLock volumes are supported on the gFiler appliance.
Answer: D

Q: 27 Which one of the following commands would you use to disable client access to snapshots on a volume called /vol/flexvol1?
A. vol options /vol/flexvol1 nosnapdir off
B. vol options /vol/flexvol1 nosnapdir on
C. vol options /vol/flexvol1 snapdir off
D. vol options /vol/flexvol1 snapdir on
Answer: B

Q: 28 Which one of the following statements is true of storage appliance SnapVault backup?
A. The volume is the basic unit of SnapVault backup.
B. The file is the basic unit for SnapVault backup.
C. The directory is the basic unit for SnapVault backup.
D. The qtree is the basic unit for SnapVault backup.
Answer: D

Q: 29 Which three are true when creating a SyncMirror volume? (Choose 3)
A. The number of disks added must be an even number and equally divided between the two plexes.
B. The disks selected for Plex 0 and Plex 1 must come from the same disk pools.
C. The number of disks selected for one plex must equal the number of disks selected from the other plex.
D. The disks are selected first on the basis of equivalent bytes per sector (bps) size, then on the basis of the size of the disk. If there is no equivalent-sized disk, Data ONTAP takes a larger capacity disk and downsizes it.
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 30 What does it signify if the disks are “not owned” in a FAS270c appliance?
A. The disks are data disks.
B. The disks are spare disks.
C. The disks are mailbox disks.
D. The disks are not used.
Answer: D

Q: 2 If the client is a CIFS client, locks are __________.
A. advisory
B. mandatory
C. ordered
D. optional
Answer: B

Q: 3 To view per client NFS statistics on NS0-153
the storage appliance, options nfs.per_client_stats.enable must be turned on.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 4 Three methods of creating a LUN are:
*lun setup
*lun map
*FilerView
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 5 Applications, such as databases, running on NAS or iSCSI or FC SAN must be __________________.
A. prepared for snapshots by flushing buffers to disk and momentarily suspending activity.
B. disconnected from their storage resources during the snapshot.
C. using dynamic multipathing during a backup.
D. mirrored with a host-based volume manager to be backed-up.
Answer: A

Q: 6 To export volumes and directories automatically on reboot, include them in the /etc/exports file.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 7 Using the output below, a co-worker determined that these are type “Solaris” LUNs. What would your determination be?
lun show -m
LUN pathMapped to LUN ID
—————————————————
/vol/vol1/lun0 solaris-igroup0 0
/vol/vol1/lun1 solaris-igroup1 0
/vol/vol1/qtree1/lun2 solaris-igroup2 0
/vol/vol1/qtree1/lun3 solaris-igroup3 0
A. These are type “Solaris” LUNs.
B. These are NFS LUNs, but the exact OS cannot be determined.
C. Not enough information is given here. Run the lun show -v command to get the information requested.
D. Not enough information is given here. Run the lun map command to get the information requested.
Answer: C

Q: 8 Which one of the following will enable “symlink_strict_security”?
A. options cifs.symlink_strict_security on
B. cifs shares -change -symlink_strict_security
C. options symlink_strict_security=true
D. options symlink_strict_security=on
Answer: B

Q: 9 To configure a storage system as a member of an active directory, the time on the storage system must be synchronized with the time on the Domain Controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 10 The writeable snapshot that is created for a LUN clone depends on ___________.
A. mirroring.
B. the snapshot taken at the time the clone was created.
C. exclusive access to the volume.
D. the data in the original LUN not changing.
Answer: B

Q: 11 Which command is the most appropriate for troubleshooting a multiprotocol authentication problem?
A. wcc
B. rdfile /etc/rc
C. priv set advanced
D. sysstat 1
Answer: A

Q: 12 A quota target can be defined as _______________.
A. the maximum amount of disk space in a volume.
B. the maximum number of files in a disk.
C. a user, group, or qtree to which a quota is applied.
D. a specific disk space threshold.
Answer: C

Q: 13 Which three are used for creating LUNs on the storage appliance? (Choose 3)
A. lun create
B. lun setup
C. FilerView
D. lun config
Answer: A, B, C

Q: 14 What is the outcome of this command?
lun create -b /vol/vol2/.snapshot/testsnap/lun0 /vol/vol2/lun0.clone
A. It creates a duplicate of the clone process of lun0.
B. It creates a clone of the writeable snapshot of lun0.
C. It creates a writeable snapshot of lun0.
D. It creates a snapshot “testsnap” of vol2.
Answer: C

Q: 15 Which security method encrypts NS0-153 dumps the data?
A. IPSec
B. CHAP
C. LUN masking
D. Header and Data Digests
Answer: A

Q: 16 ____________ is the default cfmode for new installations of Data ONTAP 7.2.
A. single image
B. mixed
C. partner
D. dual fabric
Answer: A

Q: 17 Which command would you use to verify that the iSCSI service is running?
A. license add iSCSI
B. iscsi service
C. iscsi status
D. iscsi protocol
Answer: C

Q: 18 If you believe you have a FC SAN performance problem, which NetApp utility or command would gather both your Solaris host and storage appliance data for analysis?
A. poststat
B. perfstat
C. prestat
D. sio_ntap.exe
Answer: B

Q: 19 What is the definition of the cifs setup command?
A. It displays the mount point of all shared directories.
B. It displays the names of all mounted directories on the storage system.
C. It displays the prompts for CIFS configuration information.
D. It displays a list of the users on the storage system.
Answer: C

Q: 20 UNIX allow file access based on __________.
A. GID or UID and UNIX permissions.
B. NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C. NT ACLs and SID.
D. GID or UID and ACLs.
Answer: A

Q: 21 In Data ONTAP, both the Microsoft Windows Administrator and root are exempt from user and group quotas.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 22 Which command should be used for troubleshooting connectivity problems from the storage system console?
A. ifstat, netdiag
B. sysconfig – cr, sysstat
C. scsi test, shelfchk
D. dish shm_stats, sysstat
Answer: A

Q: 23 Which cfmode is described by the following scenario? All LUNs in the cluster are avilable on all ports in thecluster. Any port on each node can provide access to both local and partner LUNs.
A. single image
B. partner
C. mixed
D. standby
Answer: A

Q: 24 In Data ONTAP, both the Microsoft Windows Administrator and root are exempt from user and group quotas, but not from tree quotas.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Q: 25 Which command best displays the statistics for the network interface?
A. netstat
B. ifconfig
C. sysstat
D. ifstat
Answer: D

Q: 26 Before running lun setup on the NS0-153 study guide storage appliance, you must pre-create the igroup to which the initiator will be attached.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Q: 27 Which two will allow you to read and analyze a packet trace file generated by the storage appliance? (Choose 2)
A. pktt
B. Netmon
C. Eternal View
D. Ethereal
Answer: B, D

Q: 28 Cfmode is a(n) ____________-specific setting.
A. FCP
B. iSCSI
C. Active/Active
D. Active/Passive
Answer: A

Q: 29 When viewing sysstat output, which three fields are part of the total number of operations per second? (Choose 3)
A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. NFS
D. HTTP
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 30 You have a 1TB volume and a 600GB LUN with 600GB of data written to the LUN. If you take a snapshot copy, will it fail?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

2. Which two products/functions from NetApp are NOT supported on the V-Series platform? (Choose two.)
A. SnapLock Compliance
B. RAID-DP
C. FlexVol
D. SnapLock Enterprise
E. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

3. Regulations call for semi-conductor NS0-102 manufacturers to maintain design data in reference form over extended periods. Which NetApp solution offers this capability?
A. SnapVault
B. Open System SnapVault
C. SnapLock
D. SnapMirror
Answer: C

4. What is Tech OnTap from NetApp?
A. a weekly technical podcast
B. a monthly e-newsletter
C. a monthly Webcast by a NetApp specialist
D. an online knowledgebase for Data ONTAP
Answer: B

5. What are two features that NetApp DataFort has that Microsoft’s free EFS does not? (Choose two.)
A. FIPS hardware key security
B. CryptoShred
C. CryptoLock
D. SAN user-aware authentication
Answer: AB

6. Which three statements about SnapDrive for Windows are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is the foundation for SnapManager for SQL.
B. It provides NTFS-consistent Snapshot copies.
C. It simplifies LUN management in a Windows environment.
D. It simplifies CIFS management in a Windows environment.
E. It requires Active Directory to function.
Answer: ABC

7. Which feature of the NearStore VTL solution enables it to useup to 50% fewer physical tapes than other VTLs?
A. shadow tapes
B. tape smart sizing
C. self tuning
D. tape compressor
Answer: B

8. Your customer wants to run a database on a NetApp storage array where they already have home directories. In the event of low system resources, which NetApp product can ensure that the database receives the majority of the storage array resources?
A. FlexClone
B. FlexShare
C. SnapManager for Oracle
D. FlexCache
Answer: B

9. What is a vFiler?
A. a virtual instance of a NetApp Storage System created via MultiStore
B. a controller running Data ONTAP that can front-end third-party storage
C. a simulated version of Data ONTAP that runs on Linux
D. a NetApp Disk-to-Disk virtual tape solution
Answer: A

10. Within the NetApp Manageability Software Family, which products does the Application Suite contain?
A. Protection Manager, Virtual File Manager, SAN Manager
B. SnapDrive for Windows, SnapDrive for UNIX, ApplianceWatch
C. Operations Manager, File Storage Resource Manager, CommandCentral Storage
D. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, SnapManager for Exchange
Answer: D

11. In a SnapManager for Exchange opportunity, which two additional software components can help you differentiate and grow NetApp value as compared to competing solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. SnapVault
C. VFM
D. SnapValidator
Answer: AB

12. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, NS0-102 dumps and SnapManager for Exchange are all part of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?
A. Data Suite
B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite
Answer: D

13. Which two NetApp products can be used in a customer’s existing third-party Exchange storage environment? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. ReplicatorX
C. SnapManager for Exchange
D. Operations Manager
Answer: AB

14. Which three requirements do NetApp core data storage systems provide to ensure patient health care data is compliant with health care regulations? (Choose three.)
A. archival
B. security
C. disaster recovery
D. high availability
E. high performance
Answer: ABC

15. Which capabilities does NetApp ONTAP GX provide to achieve high performance for render and animation server farms?
A. N-Way Clustering and Global File System
B. Stretch Fabric MetroCluster and WAFL
C. Clustering with SnapMirror Sync
D. MetroCluster and RAID-DP
Answer: A

16. Which two statements are true about SnapRestore? (Choose two.)
A. After you use SnapRestore to revert to a selected Snapshot copy, you cannot undo the reversion.
B. After you use SnapRestore to recover a file, the restored file remains read-only.
C. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a single file.
D. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a qtree and its contents.
Answer: AC

17. Which two protocol groups are supported natively on NetApp storage? (Choose two.)
A. NAS protocols (CIFS, NFS)
B. SAN protocols (ISCSI, FCP)
C. streaming protocols (RTP, RTSP)
D. messaging protocols (imap4, pop3)
Answer: AB

18. Which two benefits would a customer enjoy after implementing SnapManager for Oracle into their Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)
A. reduced recovery time objective
B. transparent database migration
C. reduced database copy time
D. reduced mirrored database footprint
Answer: AC

19. Which two NetApp replication products support heterogeneous file service environments? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual File Manager
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SyncMirror
D. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

20. What is a function of NetApp FlexClone technology?
A. It allows copies of database data sets with no additional space usage.
B. It shrinks volumes and LUNs.
C. It compresses databases.
D. It validates every block written by the database to the storage.
Answer: A

21. When maximum storage capacity is reached with a single mid-range FAS controller, the simplest way to scale
to a higher capacity is _____.
A. an upgrade to a clustered controller pair
B. a data migration
C. a head swap
D. a NetApp services engagement
Answer: C

22. Which NetApp product prevents potential corruptions of Oracle data before they are written to disk?
A. SnapValidator
B. SnapManager for Oracle
C. SnapLock Enterprise
D. SnapLock Compliance
Answer: A

23. Which types of Windows CIFS authentication environments are supported with Data ONTAP?
A. Active Directory domain, NT domain, Windows Local workgroup, Passwd/NIS file
B. Active Directory domain, Windows Local workgroup, Passwd/NIS file, UNIX-based Kerberos
C. Active Directory domain, NT domain, Passwd/NIS file, UNIX-based LDAP authentication
D. Active Directory domain, NT domain, RADIUS
Answer: A

24. What are the three functions of Protection Manager? (Choose three.)
A. It discovers all systems with NetApp datasets that are not currently backed up.
B. It notifies when backups are full or approaching a pre-defined threshold.
C. It provides information on SnapMirror and SnapVault relationships.
D. It provides the ability to manage third-party storage backups.
E. It manages connections to tape drives and performs tape backup jobs.
Answer: ABC

25. Which NetApp product helps customers in the mechanical design industry decrease product development time?
A. FlexShare
B. SnapMirror
C. FlexClone
D. SnapVault
Answer: C

26. What are two benefits of using Protection Manager? (Choose two.)
A. higher productivity for backup and mirroring administrators
B. improved data availability
C. integration with NearStore VTL
D. simplification of tape backup administration
Answer: AB

27. In which functions do SnapDrive and SnapManager for NS0-102 study guide Exchange integrate with the Microsoft VSS framework?
A. VSS Writers
B. VSS Requestors
C. VSS Provider and Requestor
D. VSS Writer and Requestor
Answer: C

28. Data ONTAP supports 255 Snapshot copies per _____.
A. LUN
B. qtree
C. volume
D. RAID group
Answer: C

29. A NetApp customer asks if he can add an extra disk shelf to his existing infrastructure.
Where would you look to determine if this would exceed the capacity of the customer’s current system?
A. sizing tools
B. product bulletins
C. support matrix
D. system configuration guides
Answer: D

30. NetApp storage systems help data warehouses increase performance by _____. (Choose two.)
A. spreading data across many disk drives by using flexible volumes
B. mirroring the data with SnapMirror Async
C. locking down data for compliance by using SnapLock Compliance
D. separating infrequently accessed data from frequently accessed data
Answer: AD

2. Which two customer requirements does the NetApp SnapLock solution meet? (Choose two.)
A.data permanence and retention regulations
B.data encryption regulations
C.secure partitioning of network and storage resources
D.rapid access to protected information
Answer: AD

3. What can a customer use to quickly NS0-101
manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?
A.RAID-DP
B.SnapMirror
C.SnapManager
D.SnapRestore
Answer: C

4. Which benefit does NetApp FlexClone provide in a technical design environment?
A.an accelerated time to market
B.a reduced backup window
C.faster application throughput
D.increased data security
Answer: A

5. Which three are available NetApp Partner programs? (Choose three.)
A.lead generation
B.opportunity registration
C.PartnerGear
D.product test and development
Answer: ABC

6. NetApp is in the Leadership quadrant of the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Mid-Range Enterprise Disk Arrays rating of storage vendors.
This is their highest rating and pertains to _____.
A.strategic business partnerships
B.financial stability
C.completeness of vision and ability to execute
D.world-class service and support
Answer: C

7. NetApp corporate pitch states that NetApp brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data management?
A.eliminates risk in an enterprise environment
B.has lowest cost per TB
C.provides unmatched simplicity
D.completely removes complexity
Answer: C

8. The NetApp corporate pitch states that the number one measurement of the company’s success is ______.
A.maintaining growth
B.customer success
C.our share price
D.customer loyalty
Answer: B

9. The NetApp strategy for addressing today’s NS0-101 dumps Data Management Challenges is based on a portfolio of products. These five strategies are: Store, _____, Retain, Protect, and Succeed.
A.Simplify
B.Manage
C.Grow
D.Expand
Answer: B

10. From the corporate pitch, what does NetApp bring to the complex world of enterprise data management?
A.unmatched scalability
B.unmatched services
C.unmatched simplicity
D.unified architecture
Answer: C

11. What are two ways in which NetApp solutions can help businesses? (Choose two.)
A.by improving business processes
B.by adopting new technology
C.by gaining a competitive advantage
D.by lowering the hardware requirements
Answer: AC

12. In addition to selling the hardware and software for a NetApp solution, which NetApp Global Service should you include?
A.SupportEdge
B.ConsultingEdge
C.CustomerEdge
D.PartnerEdge
Answer: A

13. Which service is a fixed-scope service that enables customers to take their newly-installed system to a production-ready state?
A.ConsultingEdge Services
B.Data Assessment Services
C.Rapid Deployment Services
D.SupportEdge Premium
Answer: C

14. Which three components are included in the NetApp SupportEdge Standard offering? (Choose three.)
A.access to software updates
B.proactive scheduled storage infrastructure reviews
C.phone and online support
D.on-site event support
E.hardware and software installation
Answer: ABC

15. In addition to selling the hardware and software for a NetApp solution, which NetApp Global Service should you include?
A.SupportEdge
B.ConsultingEdge
C.CustomerEdge
D.PartnerEdge
Answer: A

16. The NetApp Unified storage approach NS0-101 study guide provides many benefits to companies. These include reduced footprint, lower TCO, and increased utilization.
This approach also improves the efficiency of staff required by _____.
A.requiring less downtime when upgrading
B.providing a single platform to manage
C.needing fewer networks to provide data
D.providing scalable storage with no downtime
Answer: B

17. In which two situations is NetApp V-Series a recommended solution for a customer? (Choose two.)
A.when the customer wants to protect an existing investment in third -party storage products
B.when the customer wants to increase application uptime with an existing FAS series solution
C.when the customer has sufficient administrators to efficiently manage a diverse storage environment
D.when the customer wants Data ONTAP capabilities, but cannot deploy a NetApp primary storage solution
Answer: AD

18. What differentiates NetApp primary and secondary storage solutions from competitors’ storage solutions?
A.different platform architectures
B.different operating systems
C.a unified platform architecture
D.a single storage protocol
Answer: C

19. Which two benefits does DataFort provide customers? (Choose two.)
A.secure virus scanning
B.transparent data encryption
C.application data integrity
D.deployment with no application changes
E.secure data classification
Answer: BD

20. What is a key benefit of the NetApp Unified Storage approach?
A.The customer can buy individual solutions for each application.
B.It provides industry-leading data encryption technology.
C.It provides full interoperability across the entire storage family.
D.It provides primary storage, secondary storage, and VTL capability within the same array.
Answer: C

2. What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema’s tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: C, E

3. The STUDENT_GRADES table has 1Z0-007 these columns: STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students’ grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

4. In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: C, D, E

5. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns: CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150) CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50) STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50) PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50) COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50) POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12) CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address) E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

6. Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.

Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary) FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary) 1Z0-007 dumps FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary) FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary) FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary) FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary) FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: C, D, E

7. A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them. Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B

8. Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A

9. Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C

10. Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 ‘Annual Salary’ FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 “Annual Salary” FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP(“ANNUAL SALARY”) FROM employees
Answer: B

11. Evaluate this SQL statement: 1Z0-007 study guide SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100 FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above syntax to calculate the annual compensation as “monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied by 12″?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100) FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100 FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12 FROM emp;
Answer: B

12. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns: CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150) CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states “Dear Customer customer_name, “.
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table. Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT “Dear Customer”, customer_name || ‘,’ FROM customers;
C.SELECT ‘Dear Customer ‘ || customer_name ‘,’ FROM customers;
D.SELECT ‘Dear Customer ‘ || customer_name || ‘,’ FROM customers;
E.SELECT “Dear Customer ” || customer_name || “,”FROM customers;
F.SELECT ‘Dear Customer ‘ || customer_name || ‘,’ || FROM customers;
Answer: D

13. Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: B, E

14. Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

15. Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D